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05-25-2002, 08:15 PM
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Danny
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: Apr 2001
: York, England
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Originally posted by pinkgoth2
Yes, they did speak english. Excuse my generalization. Shakespeare was not the only playwriter. So let me clarify: Most people who had to do with writing back then made up new words. This developement had kicked off before Shakespeare wrote 'his' works.
I never said I was fond of those other playwrights, either... Just because he was trendy, that doesn't make him good...

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Hardly. Sources?
Give me a break, will you? I'm dredging up enough GCSE English and Drama as it is...

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Perhaps in england. I know for fact that in germany, for example, theatre play was a lot stricter with it's rules of how it was to be made in the beginnings and eventually broken up, NOT intensified over time again.
I meant in general. If you look at (for example) Ancient Greek Plays, you'll find a lot less of this sort of Generic Storyline...

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Besides, you make it look as if these plays have no value in themselves ("these plays" not only referring to Shakespeare's :P).
Beg pardon, then to what does "these plays" refer to? Plays of that Era? Plays in that Style? All Plays?

Basically, I think that they do have value. They are useful Historical artefacts, telling you much about people's views at the time, and about the place of Theatre in those days. I do not, however, enjoy them, which is surely the point of Entertainment. Of course, some people do enjoy them (yourself included), and that is their (your) decision, but that is no reason to treat them with the baffling reverence that people do...

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Oh! He created clichés? I thought he copied everyone's work. ;D *chuckle*
You've got me there. Ok, I'll make a concession: He didn't invent these clichés, but he was one of the playwrights responsible for constraining Theatre in them for several hundred years...

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"l33t"? What the hell is that meant to say? "leet" is all I can think of, and that doesn't mean anything...

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What does that phrase mean in German, then?
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